Regarding the conclusions based on Biblical verses, yes, they do appear to refer to a male, and not to Mary Magdalene.

However, those verses have been written, re-written and interpreted. I accept that we shouldn't read things in that are not there, but we shouldn't rely, too much, on ancient texts which had an agenda.

We do not have the originals. We do not know their full stories. We do not know who the writers were and whether or not they were biased.

I have read interpretations, where the writer has concluded that they may, indeed, refer to Mary, in spite of what has been said, above. I shall have to try to find the book.

Last edited by PDM; 01/11/09 11:54 AM.

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